A physical examination begins when: The clinician makes contact with the client The client walks in the room The client sits on the examination table The clinician gives the appointment date to the client The only people who should have access to the health history information of a client are: The health professionals in charge of the client The client's spouse The client's employer The client's insurer According to the video, the clinician must skillfully direct the health history interview through the appropriate use of: Open-ended and direct questions Open-ended and deductive questions Inductive and open-ended questions Inductive and direct questions In regard to physical exam preparation, all of the following are needed to complete the exam, except: Surgical mask Thermometer Penlight Marking pen The clinician should prepare all of the following supplies prior to a physical examination procedure, except: An anal speculum A goniometer A nasal speculum A vaginal speculum All of the following supplies are often needed to perform a complete physical examination, except: A syringe and hypodermic needle A measuring tape and ruler A sphygmomanometer and a stethoscope Tuning forks and tongue blades According to the lesson, when performing a physical assessment the clinician's approach should be: Systematic, yet flexible Direct and rigid Clinical and deterministic Warm and intimate When performing a physical examination, charting should always include all of the following, except: Only definitive diagnoses An overall impression A conclusion or problem list A plan of care developed jointly with the client All of the following techniques are utilized by the clinician during a physical examination, except: Delimination Auscultation Inspection Percussion The examination of a client's body using the clinician's senses of sight and smell is called: Inspection Auscultation Palpation Percussion In regard to inspection, good lighting is essential to best reveal all of the following characteristics, except: Size Color Texture Mobility In regard to physical inspection, all of the following questions may be useful to further observe the client, except: Does the client appreciate the examination? How does the client conduct himself? Does the client appear to be anxious? Does the client appear to be in distress? To facilitate relaxation during palpation, the clinician should instruct the client to: Take slow, deep breaths through the mouth Drink a glass of warm water Sit upright Hold his/her breath Deep palpation is done by: Depressing the skin to about 4 cm Depressing the skin to about 3 cm Depressing the skin to about 6 cm Depressing the skin to about 5 cm Light palpation is done by: Depressing the skin to a depth of approximately 1 cm Depressing the skin to a depth of approximately 2 cm Depressing the skin to a depth of approximately 5 cm Depressing the skin to a depth of approximately 0.5 cm All of the following statements about tympany are true, except: It is a loud, low-pitched sound It has a drum-like quality It is best heard on the left upper quadrant of the abdomen It may be heard over an air-filled stomach Percussion helps ascertain the borders of: Solid organs such as the heart or the liver Hollow organs such as the lung or stomach Hollow organs such as the heart or liver Solid organs such as the lung or stomach Percussion helps determine the presence of fluid or air in: Hollow organs such as the lung or stomach Solid organs such as the heart or liver Hollow organs such as the heart or liver Solid organs such as the lung or stomach Except for abdominal examination, auscultation should be performed: After other examination techniques Prior to all other examination techniques After inspection Before palpation This part of the stethoscope is used to detect low-pitched sounds: The bell The diaphragm The end piece The cuff The stethoscope's bell will act as a diaphragm if: It is pressed too firmly onto a client's body surface It is pressed too lightly onto a client's body surface It held 1/2 inch above the skin of the client It is held tightly by the clinician A full eye examination includes testing for all of following, except: Visual stimuli Visual acuity Visual field Eye movement This indicates that a client can read at 20 feet what a normal eye can read at 40 feet: 20/40 40/20 20/20 40/40 When testing distance vision, the client should stand: 20 ft from the Snellen chart 3 ft from the Snellen chart 6 ft from the Snellen chart 10 ft from the Snellen chart All of the following should be noted when examining eyebrows and eyelids, except: Hair growth Drainage Edema Lesions In regard to an eye examination, the upper lid conjunctiva should only be inspected when: The clinician suspects a foreign body The clinician uses an optotype to test the client's visual acuity The clinician suspects blinding eye diseases that are potentially treatable The clinician uses scanning laser polarimetry During an eye examination, the near vision test should be performed at this distance: 14 inches 5 inches 25 inches 36 inches This nerve governs the blinking of the eyes: Cranial nerve 7 Cranial nerve 5 Trigeminal nerve Optic nerve During an eye examination, the clinician should test the pupil for accommodation by: Holding a finger about 10 cm in front of the client's nose Holding a finger about 10 cm in front of either of the client's eyes Holding a finger about 15 cm in front of the client's nose Holding a finger about 5 cm in front of either of the client's eyes Rhythmic jerking of the eyes during an examination of a client's pupil for accommodation is called: Nystagmus Negative corneal reflex Absence of direct pupil response Diplopia The center of visual sensitivity is called the: Macula densa Optic disc Iris Pupil In regard to an eye examination, the macula densa appears as: An avascular yellow dot with two deep pink surrounding areas A vascular spot surrounded by two venioles and an arteriole Numerous fibers surrounding the optic disc with a pinkish color A visible muscle-like structure at the border of the retina The optic disc of a light-skinned client normally has a color of: Yellow to creamy pink Yellow to light orange Creamy pink to dark pink Yellow to brown Tinnitus is a symptom that refers to: A ringing sensation in the ear Discharge from the ear An inflammation of the inner ear canal A form of dizziness originating from the ear Examination of the ear includes all of the following, except: Examination of the Darwin's tubercle Examination of the external ear Examination of portions of the internal ear Testing of the client's hearing All of the following medications are possibly ototoxic, except: Dopamine Salicylates Aminoglycoside antibiotics Furosemide Irrigation of an obstructed ear canal is most specifically contraindicated in clients with a history of: Membrane perforation Hearing loss Tinnitus Vertigo A normal tympanic membrane has all of the following characteristics, except: It is immobile There is no perforation It is slightly bold in contour It has a pearly gray color In an ear examination, the tympanic membrane should be inspected for all of the following, except: Size Color Contour Intactness This is used in an ear examination to test for high-frequency hearing: An audible ticking watch Short whispered words A tuning fork An otoscope In regard to hearing tests, this is used to test bone conduction: The Weber test The Rhine test The Jaeger test The Schwabach test The Weber hearing test is performed by: Ringing the tuning fork and placing the base of the vibrating fork at the midline top of the client's head Placing the base of the tuning fork at the midline top of the client's head and then ringing it Ringing the tuning fork and placing the base of the vibrating fork at one side of the client's head Placing the base of the tuning fork at one side of the client's head and then ringing it Lateralization to the better ear in a Weber test indicates: Sensory neural loss Conductive hearing loss Normal hearing Progressive hearing loss Lateralization to the deaf ear in a Weber test indicates: Conductive hearing loss Normal hearing Sensory neural loss Progressive hearing loss When conducting a Rinne test during an ear examination, the clinician should: Test for bone conduction first, then air conduction Test for air conduction first, then bone conduction Test for bone conduction and air conduction at the same time Test for bone conduction only Bones that are lined up vertically for support are called: Axial bones Compact bones Trabecular bones Appendicular bones All of the following are stated primary functions of the skeletal system, except: Maintenance of endocrine balance Support of the body Physical protection of internal organs Lipid storage Storage of lipids in the long bones is primarily located in the: Shaft of the femur Body of tibia Body of fibula Shaft of the humerus The funny bone is a/an: Epicondyle Condyle Trochanter Tubercle The long section of a bone is the: Diaphysis Metaphysis Epiphysis Endosteum The limbs are primarily composed of: Long bones Flat bones Short bones Sesamoid bones Condyles are: Rounded knobs on the ends of bone Large projections of the femur Roughened, rounded tubes where tendons are attached Long thin blades coming out the back of a bone An epicondyle is: A smaller prominence above the condyle A rounded knobs on the end of a bone A large projection of the femur A flattened surface of a joint attachment Facets are: Flattened surfaces of a joint attachment Rounded knobs on the ends of bone Large projections of the femur Smaller prominences above the condyle Bones begin in the embryo as: Hyaline cartilage Elastic cartilage Fibrocartilage Arytenoid cartilage Most specifically, this is where growth occurs during bone development: Epiphyseal plate Metaphysis Epiphyseal area Diaphysis This is open in children and stimulated by growth hormones during bone development: Epiphyseal plate Metaphysis Epiphyseal area Diaphysis The bone-forming cells are called: Osteoblasts Osteoclasts Osteocytes Osteoprogenitors Osteoblasts develop from: Osteoprogenitor cells Osteoclasts Osteocytes Collagen Osteoprogenitor cells are: The determined stem cell of the skeletal system Bone re-absorbing cells that destroy old bone Mature bone cells that become trapped at maturity in a matrix The bone cell that removes bone tissue by removing its mineralized matrix The formation of new blood vessels is called: Angiogenesis Amelogenesis Anthesis Auxesis Callous formations may be seen in a fractured bone after: 3 weeks 6 to 8 hours 3 days 6 to 8 days The displacement of a bone from a joint is called a: Dislocation Relocation Deposition Resorption Pott's fracture refers to: A rotated ankle and the tearing of the ligament off the bone An incomplete fracture with part of the bone intact Two bone fragments pressed tightly together A bone fracture where the impact shatters the bone into multiple small fragments Greenstick fracture refers to: An incomplete fracture with part of the bone intact A rotated ankle and the tearing of the ligament off the bone Two bone fragments pressed tightly together A bone fracture where the impact shatters the bone into multiple small fragments Comminuted fracture means: The bone is shattered into multiple small fragments Two bone fragments are pressed tightly together An incomplete fracture with part of the bone intact A rotated ankle and the tearing of the ligament off the bone Osteoarthritis is a/an: Degenerative joint disease Autoimmune joint disease Systemic inflammatory disorder Seronegative spondyloarthropathy Rheumatoid arthritis is a/an: Autoimmune joint disease Degenerative joint disease Seronegative spondyloarthropathy Amphiarthrosis This modulates spinal reflexes: Brain Spinal cord Spinal nerve axis Foramen magnum Twelve spinal nerves exit at the: Thoracic section Cervical section Lumbar section Sacrum The spine is divided into: Four sections Three sections Five sections Two sections According to the lesson, the vertebral column is most analogous to the: Skull Brain Pia mater Dura mater The outer layer of the meninges is the: Dura mater Arachnoid Subarachnoid Pia mater According to the lesson, this grows faster than the spinal cord as a person matures: Spinal column Spinal disk Spinal canal Spinal nerve Cauda equina refers to: The bundle of spinal nerve roots that arise from the bottom end of the spinal cord Spinal vessels that provide limited anastomosis between the longitudinal vessels The terminal end of the spinal cord A delicate filament prolonged downward from the apex of the conus medullaris The spinal cord is divided into: Three horns Two horns Four horns Five horns The spinal cord is about: 1 inch in diameter 3 inches in diameter 1 cm in diameter 3 cm in diameter Polio often accumulates in the: Motor neurons of the anterior horn Sensory neurons of the anterior horn Motor neurons of the posterior horn Sensory neurons of the posterior horn Sensory (ascending) tracts include all of the following, except the: Lateral corticospinal tract Anterior spinothalamic tract Posterior spinocerebellar tract Lateral spinothalamic tract Afferent and efferent nerves run together in separate groups called: Tracts Ganglia Synapses Cauda equina Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis most directly causes: Progressive degeneration of motor neurons in the cord Progressive degeneration of sensory neurons in the cord Pain and tremors Muscle atrophy Multiple sclerosis most directly causes: Nerves to harden sporadically, destroying nervous tissue function Progressive degeneration of motor neurons in the cord Paraplegia Degeneration of pads between vertebrae Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is also called: Lou Gehrig's disease David Niven's disease Don Revie's disease Lead Belly's disease The reflex arc is a: Survival mechanism that allows rapid response to changes in the environment Plantar reflex that can identify disease of the spinal cord and brain Reflex response that provides information on the integrity of the central and peripheral nervous system Reflex used in evaluating integration of the central nervous system Most reflex arcs have no: Integrating neuron Relay neuron Association neuron Inhibitory neuron Diseases like polio can cause: Hyper-reflexia Asterixis Ataxia Dyskinesia Each individual axon is covered by: Endoneurium Perineurium Fascicles Epineurium Mixed spinal nerves are covered with: Epineurium Perineurium Endoneurium Fascicles This nerve plexus supplies the legs: Lumbar plexus Brachial plexus Cervical plexus Sacral plexus The human body is composed of this many skeletal muscles: 700 1000 500 250 These muscles produce movement and stability: Skeletal muscles Heart muscles Ocular muscles Sphincter muscles Most muscle groups of the body are in this class of lever: Third-class levers Second-class levers First-class levers Fourth-class levers The bone in the heel is called the: Calcaneus Tarsus Metatarsus Phalanges This muscle pulls on the bone at the back of the heel: Calf muscle Axial muscle Scalene muscle Flexor muscle The top vertebral bone in the head is called the: Atlas Axis Ilium Cranium The top of an organ or muscle is called: Proximal Distal Ventral Dorsal At the end of every muscle group is a: Tendon Ligament Bone Fascia The middle portion of a muscle is called the: Belly Tendon Lever Fulcrum The largest of a muscle group is the: Maximus Longus Brevis Latissimus This muscle enables smiling: Risorius Masseter Buccinator Temporalis The widest muscle of the back is the: Latissimus dorsi Latissimus brevis Pollicis longus Gluteus maximus The outer envelope of tough tissue surrounding a muscle is called: Fascia Areolar Endometrium Tegument This muscle elevates the arm when it contracts: Deltoid Pectoralis major Pectoralis minor Biceps brachii This muscle pulls the legs together in the midline: Adductor longus Vastus medialis Tibialis Adductor magnus The muscle that wrinkles the brow is the: Frontalis Galea aponeurotica Corrugator supercilli Orbicularis oculi The muscle which encircles the eye is the: Orbicularis oculi Frontalis Galea aponeurotica Corrugator supercilli This muscle lifts up the shoulder blade: Levator scapulae Subclavius Rhomboid Serratus anterior The muscles that rotate the shoulder usually include the: Subscapularis and supraspinatus Thenar and hypothenar Biceps and triceps brachii Pectoralis major and pectoralis minor Carpal tunnel syndrome usually occurs in the: Flexor retinaculum Ulnar canal Synovial sheath Extensor retinaculum The muscles between the metacarpals are the: Dorsal interossei Palmar brevis Adductor pollicis Opponens pollicis The biggest muscle that pulls the thigh in is called the: Adductor magnus Abductor brevis Adductor longus Adductor brevis This nerve is one of the thickest in the human body: Sciatic nerve Coccygeal plexus Obturator nerve Femoral nerve All of the following muscles pull the thigh in, except the: Adductor minimus Adductor longus Adductor brevis Adductor magnus Heat is generated in relation to the cubic volume of: Mass Motion Force Gain Shivering is the body's attempt to: Generate heat Rapid muscle contraction Regulate internal organ movement Electrical stimulation Nerves connect with their target muscle at the: Neuromuscular junction Neural junction Esophagogastric junction Limbic junction This type of muscle makes up the walls of the heart: Cardiac muscle Skeletal muscle Ocular muscle Striated muscle Small units of single muscle fiber are called: Myofibril Rhizoid Pilus Chromatid Cardiac muscle is microscopically striated like: Skeletal muscle Smooth muscle Ocular muscle Sphincter muscle The most common neurotransmitter is: Acetylcholine Adrenaline Epinephrine Encephalin Each neuron axon has an axon terminal that ends in: Synaptic bulbs Synaptic vesicles Neuromuscular junctions Esophagogastric junctions The nerve ending is separated from the muscle by the: Synaptic gap Junction gap Location gap Inosculation gap Fatigue-resistant fibers are also known as: Slow-twitch fibers Fast-twitch fibers Slow glycolytic fibers Fast glycolytic fibers The ability to perform work is called: Energy Mass Weight Matter These store chemical potential energy in muscle cells: Adenosine triphosphate and diphosphate Deoxycytidine and pyrophosphate Pyrophosphate and diphosphate Adenosine triphosphate and pyrophosphate This type of muscle contraction keeps the length of the muscle throughout: Isometric contraction Isotonic contraction Concentric motion Eccentric motion The angle between the two limbs decreases during this type of contraction: Concentric motion Isometric contraction Isotonic contraction Eccentric motion In regard to muscle contraction, negative repetition is also known as: Eccentric motion Concentric motion Isometric contraction Isotonic contraction Aerobic exercise usually refers to: Regular, repeated, and low-level exercise Irregular, repeated, and low-level exercise Regular, repeated, and high-level exercise Irregular, repeated, and high-level exercise Exercises involving gravity are especially beneficial for: Bones and bone density Cardiovascular muscles Respiratory muscles The diaphragm According to the video, this is an excellent, low impact activity to condition the heart and lungs: Swimming Cycling Sprinting Rowing