All of the following cardiac signs and symptoms can point to serious problems, except: To adeptly assess cardiac signs and symptoms, the nurse should be able to do all of the following, except: When dealing with a client with cardiac signs and symptoms, the nurse should: When assessing the chest pain of a client, the nurse should inquire about all of the following, except: If a client reports of having chest pain, the nurse should do all of the following, except: When assessing the chest pain of a client, the nurse should inquire about all of the following, except: In a client with chest pain, pallor may result from: Diaphoresis in a client with chest pain may result from: All of the following ECG results suggest anterolateral myocardial ischemia, except: A client with chest pain may exhibit high blood pressure when: If a client with chest pain has low blood pressure, the nurse should suspect: An injured myocardium that does not contract forcefully may lead to: These control the blood flow between the atria and the ventricles: These heart valves control blood flow into the great vessels: Normally, the heart beats: To auscultate the aortic valve, the nurse should position the diaphragm of the stethoscope in the: In regard to the auscultation of a client's heart, the tricuspid valve sounds can be best heard at the: All of the following are points to remember when auscultating a client's heart, except: 1 is loudest at the mitral and tricuspid areas at the apex of the heart]]> 2 normally sounds louder near the aortic and pulmonic valves at the base of the heart]]> To help distinguish S1 from S2, the nurse should palpate this pulse site as he/she auscultates: When auscultating the heart sounds of a client, to confirm S4 and other low-pitched extra heart sounds, the nurse should: To make the S4 heart sound more audible during auscultation, the nurse should: All of the following assessment findings may suggest acute angina, except: Inverted T waves and depressed ST segments in leads V3 through V6 reflect: The ECG tracing of a client with angina may show all of the following results, except: Nitroglycerin is usually administered to a client with acute angina to most specifically: In a client with acute angina, aspirin is administered most specifically to: During immediate treatment for acute angina, the vital signs of the client should be assessed every: Heart murmurs usually occur when: The first nursing intervention for a client with labored breathing is: Bibasilar crackles may indicate: To accurately detect heart murmurs, the nurse should: "The heart murmur occurs between S1 and S2 during systole and is heard throughout systole." This statement best describes the murmur's: A heart murmur with a falling intensity is called a: A faint heart murmur that is barely audible with a stethoscope should be given an intensity grade of: A grade of 4 on the heart murmur intensity scale signifies: 1 or S2 but can be barely auscultated]]> A heart murmur with an intensity grade of 5 is: 1 and S2]]> Mitral regurgitation caused by papillary muscle infarction may be suggested by a heart murmur with all of the following characteristics, except: In a client with mitral regurgitation, this may occur when backward flow of blood from the left side of the heart enters the pulmonary vessels: This diagnostic test may be ordered to confirm mitral regurgitation and to estimate its degree: This may be administered to reduce the afterload of a client with mitral regurgitation: This may be administered to reduce the preload of a client with mitral regurgitation: Preload refers to: To listen for an S3 heart sound, the nurse should auscultate in the: The S3 heart sound typically occurs when: During auscultation, to make the S3 heart sound more audible, the nurse should: The sternal notch is a bony sternal prominence that is located: Normally, the distance of the sternal notch to the highest visible level of the jugular vein pulsation is: In regard to jugular vein distention, the stagnation of blood on the right side of the heart may lead to: Peripheral edema may result from: When auscultating for adventitious breath sounds, such as crackles, the nurse should: Crackles are produced when: A client suspected of having liver congestion should be assessed for liver enlargement and right upper quadrant tenderness by: A client with left ventricular failure may have: Oliguria in a client with left ventricular failure may be caused by: All of the following assessment findings may suggest acute biventricular failure, except: 4]]> An inotropic drug should be administered to a client with acute biventricular failure to most specifically: During the continuing treatment of a client with acute biventricular failure, the nurse should perform all of the following interventions, except: The drug therapy for myocardial infarction limits the infarction's size by quickly: Myocardial infarction is commonly caused by: This is a common adverse reaction to drug therapy for myocardial infarction: In atherosclerosis, plaque in the coronary artery narrows the artery's lumen most seriously causes: In atherosclerosis, ruptured plaque can lead to the formation of: Myocardial infarction usually begins with: In atherosclerosis, reduced blood flow to the anterior wall of the left ventricle results if: This is an anticoagulant drug used for treating anteroseptal MI: This is a beta blocker used for treating anteroseptal MI: This is a thrombolytic drug used for treating anteroseptal MI: This is an antiplatelet drug used for treating anteroseptal MI: In regard to myocardial infarction, all of the following statements about nitroglycerin are true, except: In regard to sublingual nitroglycerin therapy for an MI client, reduced preload can: In regard to sublingual nitroglycerin therapy for an MI client, preload is the: In an MI client, low blood pressure due to nitroglycerin administration can: For an MI client, nitroglycerin should be administered until: For an MI client, the infusion rate of nitroglycerin should not exceed: During IV nitroglycerin therapy for an MI client, the nurse should contact the physician immediately if the client's systolic pressure falls by more than: The stimulation of opiate receptors in the central nervous system of an MI client due to morphine administration helps reduce: In regard to an MI client, this hormone raises heart rate and blood pressure: In regard to an MI client, the nurse should administer morphine sulfate at: For an MI client, the nurse should expect to continue aspirin therapy daily for at least: In an MI client, aspirin reduces platelet aggregation and improves coronary blood flow by specifically: In a client with an MI, thromboxane A2 triggers: Contraindications for thrombolytic drug therapy for an MI client may include all of the following, except: To maximize the effectiveness of thrombolytic drug therapy for an MI client, the nurse should administer the drug: All of the following statements about thrombolytic drugs used for the immediate treatment of MI are true, except: Contraindications for thrombolytic drug therapy for an MI client may include all of the following, except: In regard to thrombolytic drug therapy for an MI client, to detect life-threatening arrhythmias caused by reperfusion, the nurse should: Arrange the steps for preparing alteplase for an MI client using an accompanying transfer device in the correct order:
A. Invert the vials to dilute the powder and then remove the transfer device
B. Insert one end of the device into a vial of sterile water
C. Invert the powdered drug vial and insert its rubber stopper into the other end of the device
D. Shake the vial to dissolve the powder completely
 To prepare an MI client for alteplase therapy, the nurse should: In regard to a client with an MI, alteplase helps convert: During alteplase therapy, the break down of these clotting factors dissolves the thrombus of an MI client: This is an outward sign that the alteplase therapy is effective in an MI client: During alteplase therapy for an MI client, this signals reperfusion to injured myocardial cells: During alteplase therapy for an MI client, this signals that myocardial cell death has slowed or stopped: In a client with an anteroseptal MI, heparin blocks the conversion of: In regard to heparin therapy for an MI client, the nurse should maintain a continuous infusion of: In regard to heparin and alteplase therapy for an MI client, the nurse should take all of the following precautions to prevent bleeding, except: In a client with an MI, beta blockers prevent further damage to the heart by: During IV beta blocker therapy, the nurse should monitor the MI client for all of the following signs of heart failure, except: If the MI client can tolerate a full IV dose of metoprolol, the nurse should administer: This is the amount of resistance the heart must pump against: In a client with an MI, metoprolol decreases the force of myocardial contraction, which: 1 receptors]]> In regard to continuing therapy for an MI client, this drug should be administered to prevent platelet aggregation: In regard to continuing therapy for an MI client, the nurse should expect to administer this drug to prevent chest pain: In regard to continuing therapy for an MI client, enalapril (enalapril maleate) is administered to: A lipid-lowering drug administered to an MI client can decrease the levels of all of the following, except: To prepare an MI client for PTCA and stent placement, all of the following drugs should be administered during immediate therapy, except: ST segment depression in all of the following leads suggest an inferior wall MI, except: This is a glycoprotein IIb-IIIa receptor antagonist used for clients with an inferior wall MI: This is an antiplatelet drug used for clients with an inferior wall MI: All of the following are hypersensitivity reactions of MI clients to abciximab, except: This drug binds to ADP receptors, which deactivates nearby glycoprotein IIb-IIIa receptors and prevents fibrinogen from attaching to these receptors: To prepare an MI client for PTCA, the nurse should expect to administer abciximab: To prepare an MI client for PTCA, after administering abciximab by IV bolus, the nurse should set the pump to deliver a continuous infusion of: To prepare an MI client for PTCA, the physician may prescribe a beta-blocker to: To prepare an MI client for PTCA, the physician may prescribe diltiazem (diltiazem hydrochloride) to: Diltiazem (diltiazem hydrochloride) relaxes the vascular smooth muscles of the inferior wall of an MI client by: In regard to a client with inferior wall MI, impaired myocardial contractility due to the administration of a beta blocker reduces: After the PTCA of an MI client, to maintain coronary artery patency and prevent PTCA complications, the nurse should prepare to administer all of the following, except This drug stops thrombi from attaching to the roughened arterial wall of an MI client after a PTCA: In regard to heparin therapy of an MI client after PTCA, the nurse should individualize the dosage so that the APTT stays at: In regard to heparin therapy of an MI client after PTCA, the nurse should monitor the client closely for: After the PTCA of an MI client, the nurse should expect to maintain an IV infusion of nitroglycerin for: If the heart rate of the client with an inferior wall MI falls too low, the nurse should administer: In regard to an inferior wall MI, all of the following statements about atropine are true, except: Continuing drug therapy for inferior wall MI often includes all of the following, except: This should be included in continuing drug therapy for an inferior wall MI if the client's left ventricular function is compromised: These drugs control high blood pressure: All of the following are signs and symptoms of hypertensive emergency, except: A client with a diastolic pressure exceeding 120 should be diagnosed with: Treatment for hypertensive emergency always calls for IV drugs, because these medications begin reducing the blood pressure within: Blood pressure is the force that blood is exerted against: This may occur if a sharp rise in blood pressure causes severe arterial damage: A sharp rise in blood pressure can damage the intimal and medial layers of the: Hypertensive emergency can result from: Sodium nitroprusside used in the immediate treatment of a hypertensive emergency client acts as a: In regard to hypertension, the two major forces that control blood pressure are: Any factor that increases peripheral vascular resistance in a hypertensive client automatically: In the blood of a hypertensive client, nitric oxide activates: In a client with hypertension, guanylate cyclase increases the level of: In a client with hypertension, cyclic guanosine monophosphate causes smooth muscle relaxation by forcing this out of vascular smooth muscle cells: Upon infusion in a hypertensive client, sodium nitroprusside is converted into: In regard to hypertension, for adequate perfusion, the brain normally needs a mean arterial pressure of at least: In hypertension, a sudden drop in brain perfusion can lead to: In hypertension, an autoregulatory mechanism constricts the cerebral blood vessels to: As stated in the lesson, constricted cerebral blood vessels gradually shift the mean arterial pressure needed for brain perfusion to about: A hypertensive emergency client receiving nitroprusside for two days or more or who has renal insufficiency is at risk for: In regard to hypertension, sodium nitrite neutralizes cyanide and converts the hemoglobin in red blood cells into: Once cyanide reaches the liver during sodium nitroprusside therapy for hypertension, it is metabolized into: If signs of cyanide and thiocyanate toxicity is detected in a client with hypertension, the nurse should stop the nitroprusside infusion and administer a 3% solution of: In nitroprusside therapy for hypertension, cyanide is formed in the blood when the iron in nitroprusside molecules reacts with the: Continuing drug therapy for hypertension may include all of the following, except: Continuing therapy for hypertension should be based on all of the following, except: In a client with hypertension, these are the stated risk factors for cardiovascular disease: Thiazide diuretics are highly effective at reducing blood volume caused by: During diuretic therapy for hypertension, the nurse should check for signs of electrolyte imbalance, such as hypokalemia and: In a hypertensive client, thiazide diuretics prevent sodium and water reabsorption into the blood's: Diuretics may directly affect the arterial smooth muscles of a hypertensive client, causing: A decreased aldosterone level in a hypertensive client can cause: Beta blockers shield beta receptors in cell membranes from these catecholamines: In beta blocker therapy for hypertension, a decreased angiotensin II level allows vasodilation, causing: In the heart of a hypertensive client, beta blockers prevent the stimulation of beta1 receptors, causing: This is secreted when the kidneys of a hypertensive client secretes renin: This is a common beta blocker used in the continuing treatment of a client with hypertension: In the lungs of a hypertensive client, blockage of beta2 receptors can trigger: Because beta blockers stimulate the beta-receptors of a hypertensive client, any of the following may result, except: In regard to treatment of hypertension, this is a less lipid-soluble beta blocker: If a hypertensive client must receive a beta blocker, the nurse should document these prior to the therapy: In a client with hypertension, metoprolol primarily blocks catecholamines from stimulating: 1-receptor sites only]]> 2-receptor sites only]]> 1- and beta2-receptor sites]]> 3-receptor sites only]]> Propranolol is a type of: 1 blocker]]> 2 blocker]]> 3-adrenoceptor]]> Increased beta-receptor stimulation in a client with coronary artery disease can lead to: This reduces peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure in a hypertensive client: Losartan (losartan potassium) prevents this powerful vasoconstrictor from attaching to its receptors on arterial cell membranes: Before administering losartan (losartan potassium) to a hypertensive client, the nurse should expect to reduce the drug's dosage for 2 to 3 days to prevent: A hypertensive client taking losartan (losartan potassium) and a diuretic should be advised to change positions slowly to prevent falls caused by: Once clonidine reaches the blood of a hypertensive client, it stimulates alpha receptors in the: Clonidine decreases the hypertensive client's cardiac output by: Clonidine decreases the hypertensive client's peripheral vascular resistance by: In regard to central-acting drug therapy for hypertension, clonidine blocks brain signals that trigger: During clonidine therapy for hypertension, the nurse should reassure the client that drowsiness, lethargy and other central nervous system reactions tend to resolve after a few: A hypertensive client taking clonidine should be advised not to drink alcohol because it can exacerbate the drug's: Drowsiness, lethargy and other central nervous system reactions can occur during clonidine therapy because the drug stimulates the brain's: This is used as a common antihypertensive: When preparing drug therapy for a primary hypertension client with diabetes mellitus and renal insufficiency, the nurse should work closely with the: This is a symptom of primary hypertension complicated by diabetes mellitus and renal insufficiency: In a hypertensive client with complications, to reduce the blood pressure to the target range safely, immediate therapy typically calls for: Fenoldopam is a type of: This is a diuretic drug used for treating hypertension with complications: Fenoldopam is most specifically safe for clients with: Fenoldopam increases diuresis in a hypertensive client by: In a hypertensive client with renal insufficiency, fenoldopam dilates renal arteries in the kidneys by improving: In the vascular smooth muscle cells of a hypertensive client with renal insufficiency, fenoldopam stimulates: During fenoldopam therapy for hypertension with renal insufficiency, too rapid blood pressure reduction can cause: In a client with hypertension and renal insufficiency, slowly increasing the fenoldopam dosage every 15 minutes or as prescribed helps to prevent: This type of diuretic is more effective when the glomerular filtration rate of a hypertensive client with renal insufficiency is low: Furosemide is this type of diuretic: In a hypertensive client with renal insufficiency, furosemide works by preventing sodium and water reabsorption near the: During furosemide therapy for hypertension with complications, the nurse should administer 20 milligrams over one to two minutes to prevent: In diabetes mellitus, excess glucose can damage the glomeruli further, causing: In the kidneys, hypertension raises pressure in the: Without angiotensin II, the adrenal cortex of a hypertensive client can not release: These drugs block the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II to control blood pressure: In calcium channel blocker therapy for hypertension with complications, drinking this may increase the drug's absorption and blood level, making it more potent: During the continuing treatment of a hypertensive client with complications, this can occur when a calcium channel blocker reduces myocardial contractility: After administering prazosin during continuing therapy, the nurse should instruct the hypertensive client to remain supine or seated for: A hypertensive client should not take these while undergoing prazosin therapy as they can decrease the blood pressure too much: If a hypertensive client is ready for discharge, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid certain over-the-counter drugs, including cold remedies with: When the hypertensive client is ready for discharge, the nurse should teach the client about each prescribed drug, including: If a hypertensive client is ready for discharge, the nurse should do all of the following, except: In the heart, this acts as a gatekeeper for impulses, limiting the number of impulses that pass through each minute: When impulses leave the AV node, they travel to the common Bundle of His through the: When the body is at rest, the normal number of electrical heart impulses per minute is: Most specifically, atrial fibrillation occurs when: In acute atrial fibrillation, impulses change direction and form a circuit that may eventually die out when: In acute atrial fibrillation, ectopic sites in the atria create: Atrial fibrillation reduces cardiac output most specifically by: 1-adrenergic receptors]]> 2-adrenergic receptors]]> During assessment for acute atrial fibrillation, a loud S1 heart sound may be heard when: During assessment for acute atrial fibrillation, a quieter S1 heart sound may be heard when: When evaluating the blood circulation of a client with acute atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the client's arms and legs for all of the following, except: Most specifically, cerebral and peripheral ischemia in a client with acute atrial fibrillation may result from: 1-antitrypsin deficiency]]> Thromboembolism in an acute atrial fibrillation client usually occurs when: This drug prevents thrombus formation in the atria and ventricles of a client with acute atrial fibrillation: When administered to a client with atrial fibrillation, this endogenous nucleoside slows conduction through the AV node: This is a beta-adrenergic blocker used in the drug therapy for atrial fibrillation: In first-degree AV block, impulse conduction through the AV node usually takes more than: In an AV block client, Purkinje fibers can create this number of impulses per minute: In an AV block client, junctional tissue cells can initiate this number of impulses per minute: A client with AV block has: When cannon A waves occur in an AV block client, blood can not move forward because: Cannon A waves in an AV block client are usually seen in jugular vein pulsations just before: 1]]> 2]]> 3]]> 4]]> First-degree AV block is characterized by: Second-degree AV block type II is characterized by: Third-degree AV block is characterized by: In an advanced AV block client, atropine works most specifically by: In a client with advanced AV block, a temporary pacemaker works most specifically by: 1-adrenergic receptors]]> 2-adrenergic receptors]]> This drug relaxes vascular smooth muscle and can worsen hypotension when administered to a client with advanced AV block: In a client with ventricular arrhythmias, PVCs develop most specifically when: In regard to the causes of ventricular arrhythmias, this usually occurs when ventricular cells become irritable from an electrolyte imbalance: This is a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, which commonly deteriorates into ventricular fibrillation: Defibrillation in a client with pulseless ventricular tachycardia most specifically: Once a ventricular fibrillation client develops ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, the nurse should expect to administer: In a ventricular fibrillation client, lidocaine works most specifically by: During general assessment for ventricular arrhythmias, when evaluating the client's blood pressure, the nurse should be alert for: This may occur in a ventricular arrhythmias client when cardiac output and stroke volume are reduced: Once ventricular arrhythmia is stabilized, the nurse should perform a general assessment, beginning with the client's: Drug therapy for ventricular arrhythmias usually includes: This is a class I antiarrhythmic drug used in the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias: In regard to drug therapy for ventricular arrhythmias, amiodarone is a: When a client with arrhythmia is ready for discharge, the nurse should provide instructions about all of the following, except: All of the following are stated general nursing interventions for arrhythmias, except: Generally, arrhythmias occur when: A brain aneurysm is: Brain aneurysms usually occur: This is a spider-like membrane in the brain: In regard to cardiopulmonary arrest, a code is a/an: Cardiopulmonary arrest is: The atmosphere during a cardiopulmonary arrest situation is usually: All of the following will determine a nurse's role and responsibilities during a cardiopulmonary arrest code, except: To function effectively in any code with a degree of confidence, the nurse should do all of the following, except: The nurse should anticipate the need for all of the following drugs during a cardiopulmonary arrest code, except: All of the following conditions may lead to cardiopulmonary arrest, except: All of the following conditions may lead to cardiopulmonary arrest, except: A cardiopulmonary arrest code is called when: The nurse should call the cardiopulmonary arrest code if: The "ABC's" of cardiopulmonary resuscitation are: During CPR, the stated quickest method of ventilating a cardiopulmonary arrest client is by: In regard to code interventions for cardiopulmonary arrest, this statement about ET intubation is most true: Applying cricoid pressure during ET intubation of a client in cardiopulmonary arrest may: During ET intubation of a cardiopulmonary arrest client, cricoid pressure should be applied until: During a cardiopulmonary arrest code, the circulation of the client should be assessed by: Properly performed chest compressions in a cardiopulmonary arrest client during a code can produce: When defibrillating a cardiopulmonary arrest client, the paddles should be placed: The sequence of interventions for cardiopulmonary arrest varies, depending on the: Asystole is: Arrange these interventions for a cardiopulmonary arrest client with EMD into the proper sequence:
A. Consider administering IV sodium bicarbonate
B. Provide CPR
C. Establish an IV or endotracheal access route
D. Treat the underlying problem
E. Give epinephrine by IV push
 This statement about acute myocardial infarction is most true: The diagnosis of myocardial infarction is usually based on all of the following findings, except: 2 above 90% and an SvO2 above 60%]]> This finding is conclusive evidence of acute myocardial infarction: 2 above 60%]]> All of the following are stated classic symptoms of acute myocardial infarction, except: Acute myocardial infarction may produce: This should be determined to confirm the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction: This should be performed to determine the extent of atherosclerosis in an acute MI client: When performing PTCA in an acute MI client, inflation of each balloon takes about: During treatment for acute MI, the nurse should expect to administer all of the following, except: The rate of blood return to the heart is referred to as: Myocardial infarction may be caused by: The stated most common cause of left-sided ventricular failure is: The pericardium is: Cardiac tamponade usually occurs when: The clinical signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade are related to: All of the following are stated signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade, except: During auscultation of breath sounds, the lung fields of a cardiac tamponade client may sound: During auscultation of heart sounds, the cardiac tamponade client may show: The right atrial pressure is: The central venous pressure of a cardiac tamponade client is elevated when: These are the stated general nursing interventions for cardiac tamponade: All of the following signs and symptoms may be present in a client with left-sided ventricular failure and acute pulmonary edema, except: All of the following signs and symptoms may be present in a client with left-sided ventricular failure and acute pulmonary edema, except: All of the following signs and symptoms may be present in a client with left-sided ventricular failure and acute pulmonary edema, except: To convert the atrial fibrillation of a client with acute pulmonary edema, the nurse should expect an order for: To control the diuresis of a client with acute pulmonary edema, the nurse should expect to administer: If acute pulmonary edema worsens, the nurse should anticipate the need for: 3 to 5 minutes of apnea can cause most people to: A minute or two of apnea can cause: Permanent brain damage begins after: This may be present when the airway is partially obstructed: Sleep apnea can lead to: Intermittent airway obstruction is characterized by: During treatment for intermittent airway obstruction, this low-flow system should be used for supplemental oxygen administration: A nasal cannula can deliver an oxygen concentration of 24% to 44% at a flow rate of: A face mask can provide an oxygen concentration of 40% to 60% at a flow rate of: The stated most sensitive measurement of transient oxygen desaturation is: Of all the fingers, this has the strongest pulsation: The pulse oximeter probe is most commonly placed on a client's: A good rule of thumb when selecting a nasal airway is: If a nasal airway fails to relieve intermittent airway obstruction, the nurse may try: Intermittent airway obstruction should not be allowed to persist for more than: The glottis is located below the: The vocal cords are supported by the: The cricothyroid membrane is located: Total airway obstruction is usually seen in: All of the following are stated signs of total airway obstruction, except: Unconsciousness can cause total airway obstruction when the relaxed: Sub-diaphragmatic abdominal thrust is also known as the: If a choking client is pregnant or obese, the nurse should use: If the Heimlich maneuver fails to treat a choking client, the nurse may try: In regard to interventions for total airway obstruction, this should not be used in clients with spinal injury: Once the airway of an unconscious client with total airway obstruction is open, the nurse should administer: 2]]> 2]]> 2]]> 2]]> This should be the last treatment of choice for an unconscious client with total airway obstruction: All of the following are examples of infection in a portion of the airway, except: The nurse should assess all of the following in a client complaining of breathing difficulty, except: Airway trauma can most specifically cause any of the following, except: In a client with partial airway obstruction, stridor is usually more pronounced: A client with partial airway obstruction uses these accessory muscles for ventilation: Hypercarbia may be determined by analyzing: To monitor hypoxemia in a client with partial airway obstruction, the nurse should: Clients with partial airway obstruction should be placed in: This may be used to help improve partial airway obstruction: